I don't get it. In a recent letter, the writer yet again tries to directly connect a dog's bite to its owner's shortcomings. This logic begs the question whether a dog's fatal bite/mauling shouldn't see its owner in court facing manslaughter charges and possible prison.
If it is determined that the offending creature must be euthanized, what of the irresponsible owner? As an aside, the bite of a border collie, chihuahua, peke, Newfoundland, etc. has rarely resulted in the death of the victim. Not so when the fierce jaws strike.